Saturday, 19 October 2013

Salary of IAS Officers

What is the Salary of IAS Officers ? :
IAS jobs are the most sought after jobs in India and are the top class jobs among Indian Civil Services. 
Since implementation of 6th Pay Commission, the salary structure of  IAS officers has really improved and now they are now getting handsome salary along with many other benefits.

The salary structures for IAS Officers can be divided into the following categories :
Junior Scale : Pay Band: Rs 15600-39100 Grade Pay Rs 5400
This is the scale in which the selected candidates are initially placed.  The above are only Basic Pay.  You will also be entitled for HRA (or official accommodation) , DA  (the DA for July 2013 onwards  is 90%.   DA is revised on half yearly (January and July every year) basis depending on the inflation index) It is well known fact that  IAS officers usually get good official accommodation  and a nominal amount of about Rs500+ is deductible from the salary.
In most of the postings IAS officer is entitled for official vehicles.  Moreover, IAS officers also get number of perks, which are likely to include Electricity bills, phone bills, water bills,
Later on IAS officers are promoted to following scales :-


(a) Senior Time scale: After few years  experience, IAS are promoted to this scale, which is
Rs.15600-39100 with 6600 as grade pay.
(b) Junior Administrative Grade pay is 7600/- with the constant pay band as above.
(c) Selection grade officer will get a hike in salary with Rs.37400-67000 with 8700 as grade pay.
(d) Super Time Scale at this position the pay is Rs.37400-67000 with 10000 as gradepay.
(e) Above Super Time Scale. there are three pay bands in this scale.
->Rs.37400-67000 Grade pay of Rs.12000
->Pay scale of 80000 Fix.
->Cabinet Secretary grade of 90000 Fix.
No grade pay will be given to this scale officer.

Bank Clerk Exam – IBPS – CWE – Clerk Exam

IBPS conducts Common Written Exam for recruitment to the posts of Clerks in the public sector banks.  The following are the broad details for such examination :
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
I : Citizenship : Indian
II. Age :  Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 28 years

III. Educational Qualifications:
Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.
Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory. Candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute. Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable.  (Some questions may be put at the time of interview to ascertain the candidate’s familiarity with the Official Language of the State/UT)
Ex-Servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate Ex-Servicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the Union.

D. WRITTEN EXAMINATION
I. The structure of the examination which will be conducted online is as follows:
Sr. No.

Name of Tests (Objective)Maximum MarksTotal Time
1Reasoning40 
2 hours
2English Language40
3Numerical Ability40
4General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry)40
5Computer Knowledge40
 Total200

II. Penalty for Wrong Answers
There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate; there will be no penalty for that question.
III. Examination Centers
(i) The examination will be conducted online in venues across many centres in India.
(ii) No request for change of centre for Examination shall be entertained.
(iii) IBPS, however, reserves the right to cancel any of the Examination Centres and/ or add some other Centres, at its discretion, depending upon the response, administrative feasibility, etc.
IV. Scores
The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equipercentile method.
V. Cutoff Score
Each candidate will have to secure a minimum score in each test and also on total to be considered to be called for interview. For each State/UT, mere passing in individual tests may not be sufficient as candidates should also score sufficiently high on Total in order of merit to be called for interview.
 E. INTERVIEW
Candidates who have been shortlisted in the examination for CWE Clerks Exam will subsequently be called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organizations. Interviews will be conducted at select centers. The centre, address of the venue, time & date of Interview will be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are required to download their interview call letters from authorized IBPS website www.ibps.in. Any request regarding change in date, centre etc. of interview will not be entertained. However the conducting agencies reserve the right to change the date/ venue/ time/ centre etc. of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date / session / venue / centre / set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any.
The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD/EXSM candidates). The weightage (ratio) of CWE (exam) and interview will be 80:20. For each State/UT, the combined final scores of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of total scores obtained by the candidates in CWE Clerk-III and Interview. A candidate should qualify both in the CWE and interview to be shortlisted for subsequent allotment process, details of which will be available subsequently on IBPS website. While appearing for the Interview, the candidate should produce valid prescribed documents given below. 8
FEE :
- Rs. 100/- for SC/ST/PWD/EXSM candidates.
- Rs. 600 /- for all others
Bank Transaction charges for Offline/ Online Payment of application fees/ intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate

Bank Probationary Officers Exam – IBPS Exam Scheme

IBPS PO/MT Exam Pattern Details: 
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts Common Written Examination (CWE PO/MT) for recruitment to the posts of  Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee vacancies in Public Sector Banks.  The test now a days is  conducted online.
CWE consists of objective type questions. Total mark of the exam are 200 and duration is 2 hours.  However, there is a Negative Marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.  In case a  question is left blank, there will be no negative marking for that question. The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equipercentile method.
Common Written Examination Pattern:
Sr.
No.
Name of Tests (Objective)Maximum
Marks
Duration
1Reasoning50
Composite Time of 2 hours
2English Language40
3Quantitative Aptitude50
4General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry)40
5Computer Knowledge20
Total200

IBPS PO/MT Eligibility Details Eligibility Criteria:
Nationality/Citizenship: A Citizen of India.
Age limit: Candidates age limit is  prescribed between 20 years to 30 years [For certain categories relaxation of upper age limit is available]
Educational qualification:  Degree in any discipline from a recognized university or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.  Computer knowledge is not mandatory.
Cutoff Score
Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview.  Depending on the number of vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for interview.

INTERVIEW
Candidates who have been shortlisted in the examination for CWE PO/MT-III are subsequently called for an Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organizations.  Interviews are conducted only at select centers. The centre, address of the venue, time & date of Interview are  informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter.   Candidates are required to download their interview call letters from authorized IBPS website www.ibps.in.   Any request regarding change in date, centre etc. of interview are not entertained.  However the conducting agencies reserve the right to change the date/ venue/ time/ centre etc. of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date / Session / venue / centre / set of candidates at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any.
The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks in interview will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD candidates). The weight age (ratio) of CWE (exam) and Interview will be 80:20. The combined final scores of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in CWE PO/MT-III and Interview.
A candidate should qualify both in the CWE and interview to be shortlisted for subsequent allotment process, details of which are made available subsequently on IBPS website.
[Note : The above guidelines are given on the basis of past advertisements of IBPS, and can be changed for exams to be held in future.  Therefore, candidates are advised to always check the latest advertisement of IBPS before applying for the PO exams]

IAS – Interview

It is mentioned in the Main Examination page that the interview will carry 275 marks (with no minimum qualifying marks).   Marks thus obtained by the candidates (in the Main Examination as well as interview) would determine their final ranking. The object of the interview is to assess the personal suitability of the candidate for a career in public service by a Board of competent and unbiased observers.
Some of  the features for Interview / Personality Test :
  • The candidates who qualify in the Main Examination will be interviewed by a Board who will have before them, a record of his/her career.
  • He/she will be asked questions on matters of general interest.
  • The test is intended to judge the mental calibre of a candidate.
  • In broad terms, this is really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities, but also social traits and his interest in current affairs.
  Based on the ranking and availability of vacancies in different States, candidate are posted to various services keeping in view their ranks in the examination and the preferences expressed by them for the various Services and Posts.

IAS – Main Exam

The candidates who qualify the Preliminary Examination are eligible to appear in the IAS Main Examination.     The Main Examination is intended to assess the overall intellectual traits and in-depth of understanding of candidates rather than merely the range of their information and memory.  Candidates who obtain minimum qualifying marks in the Main Examination as may be fixed by the Commission at their discretion, shall be eligible for an interview / for a Personality Test.
The number of candidates to be summoned for interview are usually about twice the number of vacancies to be filled.
The scope of the syllabus for the optional subject papers for the examination is broadly of the honours degree level i.e. a level higher than the bachelors degree and lower than the masters degree. In the case of Engineering and Law, the level corresponds to the bachelor’s degree.
The Main Examination will consist of 9 papers in total comprising of conventional essay type questions.  The written examination consists of following papers with a total marks of 1750 marks.  
Paper I
One of the Indian Lanaguages to be selected by the candidate from the 18 languages included in the 8th Schedule to the Constitution (Qualifying Paper)
300 Marks
Paper II
English (Qualifying Paper)
300 Marks
Paper III
Essay
250 Marks
Paper IV, V, VI, VII
General Studies  (250 Marks for each paper)
1000 Marks
Paper VIII, IX
Any one Optional subject (which contains 2 papers) to be selected from the prescribed OPTIONAL subjects (250 marks for each paper)
500 Marks
Total Marks for Written Examination
1750 Marks
Interview / Personality Test
275 Marks
Grand Total
2025 Marks
Some of the features of this Exam are :
  • Blind candidates will, however, be allowed an extra time of thirty minutes at each paper.
  • The papers on Indian Languages and English are of Matriculation or equivalent standard and will be of qualifying nature; the marks obtained in these papers will not be counted for ranking.
  • The Paper-I on Indian Language will not, however, be compulsory for candidates hailing from the North-Eastern States of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland and also for candidates hailing from the State of Sikkim.
  • Evaluation of the papers, namely, Essay, General Studies and Optional Subject of all candidates would be done simultaneously along with the evaluation of their qualifying papers on ‘Indian languages’ and ‘English’ but the papers on ‘Essay’, ‘General Studies’ and ‘Optional Subject’ of only such candidates will be taken cognizance of who attain such minimum standard as may be fixed by the Commission at their discretion for the qualifying papers on ‘Indian language’ and ‘English’ and, therefore, the marks in ‘Essay’ ‘General studies’ and ‘Optional subject’ will not be disclosed to those candidates who fail to obtain such minimum qualifying standard in ‘Indian language’ and ‘English’.
  • Candidates should however note that, if they misuse the above rule, a deduction will be made on this account from the total marks otherwise accruing to them and in extreme cases, their script(s) will not be valued for being in an unauthorised medium.
  • The question papers for the examination will be of conventional (essay) type.
  • Each paper will be of three hours duration.
  • Candidates will have the option to answer all the question papers, except the Qualifying language papers, (viz. Papers I and II of the Main Examination mentioned above), in any one of the languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution or in English.
  • Candidates exercising the option to answer papers III to IX in any one of the languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution may, if they so desire, give English version within brackets of only the description of the technical terms, if any, in addition to the version in the language opted by them.
  • The question papers other than the literature of language papers will be set both in Hindi and English Only.

IAS – Preliminary Exam

Overview : IA S – Preliminary Examination, which serves as a screening test only, now consists of two papers of Objective Type (multiple choice questions) and carry a maximum of 400 marks.   Thus, only those candidates who are declared by UPSC  to have qualified in the Preliminary Examination become eligible for admission to the Main Examination.  The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination Examination are NOT counted for determining their final order of merit.

Usually, the number of candidates who are declared to have qualified the Preliminary examination are about twelve to thirteen times of the total approximate number of vacancies to be filled in the year for various Services and Posts.



The Preliminary Examination comprises  of TWO Compulsory Papers  of 200 marks each.

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION – Paper I – Objective Type   (Marks: 200     Duration: 2 hours)

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION – Paper II – Objective Type  (Marks: 200     Duration: 2 hours)



 Some of the features of Preliminary Examination are :

Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions).
The question papers will be set both in Hindi and English.
Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level will be tested through passages from English Language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.
Each paper will be of two hours duration. (Blind candidates will however, be allowed an extra time of twenty minutes at each paper)
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS EXCEPT SOME OF THE QUESTIONS WHERE THE NEGATIVE MARKING WILL BE IN-BUILT IN THE FORM OF DIFFERENT MARKS BEING AWARDED TO MOST APPROPRIATE AND NOT SO APPROPRIATE ANSWER FOR SUCH QUESTIONS. For further details regarding negative marking,
 For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and the penalty will be the same as mentioned above for that question.
If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.


Syllabus for Preliminary Examination :



PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION – PAPER I – OBJECTIVE TYPE         (Marks: 200     Duration: 2 hours)

Current Events of National and International importance.
History of India and Indian National Movement.
Indian and World Geography – Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.
Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
Economic and Social Development – Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc.
General issues on Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialisation.
General Science.


PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION – PAPER II – OBJECTIVE TYPE         (Marks: 200     Duration: 2 hours)

Comprehension.
Interpersonal skills including Communication skills.
Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability.
Decision Making and Problem Solving.
General Mental Ability.
Basic Numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) – (Class X level).
Data Interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc.) – (Class X level).
English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level).
Note 1: Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper- II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.

Note 2: All the questions will be of Objective Type (Multiple Choice Questions).

Note 3: It is mandatory for the candidate to appear in both the papers of Civil Services (Prelims) Examination for the purpose of evaluation. Therefore a candidate will be disqualified in case he/she does not appear in both the papers of Civil Services (Prelims) Examination.

OVERVIEW OF IAS EXAM / CIVIL SERVICES EXAM


The Indian Civil Services examination, which is popularly known as IAS exam,  is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) every year. The examination schedule is usually announced during January – February, and once a candidate has applied he / she has to undergo the selection process in 3 stages.  At each stage candidates are filtered through a process of elimination, and the candidates who are ranked higher go to next stage of selection process.



Three Stages of the Selection Process are as follows :



(a)    Civil Services – Preliminary Examination – Objective Type (Qualifier) – These are held usually in May / June and results announced in July / August.  The candidates declared qualified go to the next stage of selection process;

(b)   Civil Services – Main Examination – Written Test.   This exam is held in October / November and the candidates who qualify even this process are called for next stage of selection process;

(c)    (c ) Interview / Personality Test.  These are held in March – April of the next year.



The final recruitment and posting of candidates depends on their ranking and the available vacancies for different posts to be filled during that particular year.



First of all, the candidates are required to first apply for the Preliminary Examination only.  The candidates who are declared qualified for appearing in the Main Examination will have to apply again, in a detailed Application Form which would be supplied to them by UPSC



Eligibility Criteria



Age Limit

The candidate applying for the examination should be between the age 21 years and 30 years on August.  He/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1983.



Educational Qualification



The candidate must possess a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification.



Application Fee



The candidates are required to pay fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees Hundred only)



[All the above details are based on previous IAS exam ads and are subject to change in the coming years.  Therefore, candidates are advised to check the details from current year’s UPSC advertisement / UPSC website.]

Pure Economy Based Questions


1) On the recommendation of which committee the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has been releasing money of the Centers share of recapitalization assistance to the primary agriculture credit societies (PACS) in various states to introduce cooperative reforms ? - Prof A. Vaidyanathan Committee

2) Express Remit is the brand name of a remittance facility by which bank? – SBI

3) Which region / geographical area is the most important source region of NRI remittances to India ? – North America

4) To achieve 100% financial Inclusion in India, Reserve Bank of India had had issued a circular in July 2009 permitting cash withdrawals of up to Rs 1,000 per day from PoS (Point of sale) terminals at merchant establishments. Recently which bank has become first bank of India to offer this facility? – Union Bank of India

5) Which sector of Indian Economy is maximum dependent on economic developments in advanced nations? – Services Sector

6) Many a times we read in the newspapers that Government of India is promoting private investment in the country through PPP mode that is Public private partnership. What is the target of the private sector investment in the country by 2012 ? – US $ 200 Billion

7) For the first time in India, in which Union Budget “basic reforms in the international financial and trading system” was stressed in India? – Union Budget of 1983

8) As we all know that economic liberalization began in true sense in July 1991 in India. Which was the first step of the government while taking the country towards Economic Liberalization? - Substantial changes in industrial license policy

9) In a condition of monopoly, the monopolist has a control over the price he charges for his product. In which condition he will be able to maximize his profits? - Lowering the prices if the demand curve is elastic

10) Rs. 10000 are realized after selling 100 units and Rs. 14000 are realized after selling 120 Units. In this example, Rs. 200 is ________? – Marginal Revenue

11) What is the current limit for collateral free loans to micro and small enterprises (MSEs) sector in India? – 5 Lakh

12) RBI introduced the Base Rate System from which date? – July 01, 2010

13) What is RBI’s Base Rate System (BRS) – It is the new reference rate for determining lending rates for banks

14) ”On-line Electric Vehicle,”(OELV) is world ‘ s first commercial wireless electric vehicle. It was launched in 2010 in which country – South Korea

15) BT varieties Bollgard-I and Bollgard-II are varieties of which crop – BT Cotton

Probable Economy Related Questions from 2010

1) In April 2010 which associate bank of the State Bank group was merged with the State bank of India (SBI)? – State Bank of Indore 

2) Which was India’s position in the Global Competency Report published by the World Economic Forum? – 51st 

3) Prices of which important commodity was deregulated in the month of June 2010? – Petrol (Now prices of petrol will be regulated by the petroleum companies according to price reflection in international markets instead of by the Govt.)

4) Which is the base year for India’s newly composed Wholesale Price Index (WPI)? – 2004-05

5) How many commodities are kept in the newly composed WPI? – 676 commodities

6) How many commodities were earlier kept in the old WPI? – 435

7) What was the base year for the old WPI? – 1993-94

8) Who was the deputy-Governor of RBI who retired from her post in November 2010? – Usha Thorat

9) On 15th September 2010, on the recommendations of the Central Board of Trustees (CBTs) of the 
Employment Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), the Labour Ministry announced how much rate of interest to be paid per annum on savings account of Provident Fund for the fiscal year 2010-11? – 9.5% p.a.

10) What was the earlier rate of interest rate for Provident Fund accounts? – 8.5% p.a.

11) What was India’s rank in the ‘Global Governance 2025’ report jointly prepared by the National Intelligence Council of the US and the European Union Institute for Security Studies (EUISS)? – 3rd 

12) Indian Govt.’s ‘Focused Product Scheme’ is associated with which policy regulation? – Foreign Trade Policy

13) With which country India signed 30 agreements on different fields including oil and gas sector and pacts on nuclear energy, defence and space cooperation on December 21, 2010? – Russia

14) According to a latest report on Urbanization released in September 2010 by the Asian Development Bank (ADB), what is India’s position? – 34th 

15) According to ADB’s report on Urbanization how much of India’s populace resides in urban areas? – 29.4%

16) Which are the countries in the Asia-Oceania Region, whose 100 per cent population resides in urban areas? – Singapore, Hong Kong and Nauru

17) Which PSU (Public Sector Undertaking) has been conferred with the MOU Excellence Award to facilitate the PSU’s performance during 2008-09? - Cochin Shipyard Ltd.

18) What is the name of Corporate lobbyist who was questioned by Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) team on 21-12-2010 for her firm’s alleged role in the 2G spectrum allocation case? – Nira Radia

19) In how many Indian cities was supply of Bharat Stage - IV of Diesel and Petrol started on 1st April 2010? – 13 cities (Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, Lucknow, Kolkata, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Pune, Solapur, Chennai, Begaluru and Hyderabad)

20) On which date was supply of Bharat Stage – III Diesel and Petrol commenced all over the country? – 23 September 2010

21) Which Indian state topped achieved highest growth in Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) during year 2009-10, according to data released in 2010? – Chattisgarh 

22) What is the upper limit for investment by retail investors in IPO after SEBI increased this limit? – Rs. 2 Lakh (SEBI announced increase in this limit on 25th October 2010 and raised it from Rs. 1 Lakh to Rs. 2 Lakh)

23) Which was India’s largest IPO, which was offered to the public in the year 2010? – the IPO of Coal India Limited (CIL) worth Rs. 15,475 Crore 

24) Which was the largest IPO in India prior to the IPO of Coal India Limited? – IPO of Reliance Power (at Rs. 11,600 crore)

25) Which four PSU companies were accorded the Maharatna status by Union Heavy Industries Ministry in 2010? – Oil and Natural gas Corporation (ONGC), Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)

26) What is the most important benefit of Maharatna status? – the companies with this status can invest upto Rs. 5,000 crore in any project without taking permission of the Union Govt.

27) How many Indian PSU companies have been accorded the Nav-Ratna status till Nov, 2010? – 16 companies (BHEL, BPCL, HPCL, MTNL, GAIL, BEL, HAL, Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd. (PGCIL), NMDC, NALCO, Power Finance Corporation (PFC), Rural Electrification Corporation (REC), Shipping Corporation of India (SCI), Coal India Limited (CIL), Oil India limited (OIL) and Rashtriya Ispat Nigam limited (RINL)

28) Which is the new number commissioned by the Income Tax Deptt., that will become mandatory to quote while filling the income tax return? – DIN (Document Identification Number). It has become mandatory to quote this number alongwith PAN and TAN while filling IT return

29) What is India’s position in Human Development Report released by UNDP in November 2010? – 119th 

30) Which country topped in the Human Development Report released by UNDP in November 2010? – Norway 

31) The G-20 summit 2010 (11-12 Nov) was held in which city? – Seoul (capital of South Korea)

32) Which are the constituent countries of G-20? – Seven developed nations (US, UK, Canada, France, Italy, Japan and Germany) large developing countries (Argentina, Australia, Brazil, China, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arab, South Africa, South Korea and Turkey) and the European Union

33) The India International Trade Fair organized in Delhi in 2010 was which edition of this annual trade fair organized by India Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO)? – 30th 

34) From which date the Direct Tax Code (DTC) would come into effect all over the country?- 1st April 2011

35) DTC would take place of which act connected with income tax? – Income Tax Act 1961

36) The RBI implemented the new Base Rate System (BRS) in place of Prime Lending Rate (PLR) for bank loans from which date? – 1st July, 2010

37) What is meaning of Base Rate System (BRS)? – BRS is a more transparent system for bank loans mooted by the RBI under which no bank can provide loans at lower rates than the announced BRS. BRS would enthuse more competitiveness among the commercial banks

38) Bharti Airtel acquired which mobile company’s African operations to emerge as the 5th largest mobile operator in the world? – Zain (Bharti acquired the business of Zain Africa)

39) Which company was able to acquire pan-India license for Broadband Wireless Access (BWA) in the auctions held in month of May-June 2010? – InfoTel

40) Which leading Indian corporate marked its entry into the lucrative field of telecom after it acquired a majority stake in InfoTel? – Mukesh Ambani promoted Reliance Industries (It acquired 95% stake in InfoTel for Rs. 4800 crore)

41) Which port was added in the list of major ports of country on 1st June 2010 to take the number of major ports in India to 13? – Port Blair 

42) Under which act are the major ports of India administered? – Major Port Trust Act implemented by the Port Trust of India

43) Major ports of the country control approximately what percentage of total Indian shipping business? – about 90%

44) Which are the 13 major ports of India which are presently administered by the major Port Trust Act? – Kolkata (or Haldia in W. Bengal), Kandla (Gujarat), Marmugao (Goa), Kochi (kerala), Chennai (TN), Ennore (Kerala), Jawaharlal Nehru Port, (also called Nhava Sheva in Mumbai), New Mangalore (Karnataka), Paradeep (Orissa), Tuticorin (TN), Vishakhapatnam (AP) and Port Blair (Andaman & Nicobar)

45)  J J Irani Committee is related with which subject / issue? – Company Law

46) IDBI Bank opened its first overseas branch in which city in 2010? – Dubai

47) Which leading automobile company acquired controlling stake in the auto company which manufacturers India first electronic car Reva? – Mahindra and Mahindra

48) Rajasthan bank merged in which leading private sector bank of country? – ICICI Bank

49) In 2010 India completed how many years of administered taxation system in the country? – 150 years (1st taxation rule was made during the British Regime in 1860)

50) Which organization launched a new index on poverty called Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) in October 2010? – UNDP (United Nations Development Program)

51) MPI has been launched by UNDP to take place of which old index pertaining to poverty? – Human Poverty Index (Which was annually published by UNDP since 1997)

52) How many Indian companies were listed in the Fortune 500 list of year 2010? – 8 (Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), Reliance Industries, State Bank of India (SBI), Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd (BPCL), Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL), Oil & Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), Tata Steel and Tata Motors

53) Which Indian companies is the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune 500 list of world’s largest companies? – Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), which is ranked at 125th place in the list

54) Which company was ranked at first place in the Fortune 500 list of 2010? – Wal Mart

55) Which multinational bank acquired the business of Britain’s troubled Royal Bank of Scotland (RBS)? – HSBC (Hong Kong and Shanghai Bank)

56) Reliance Natural Resources Limited (RNRL), a company of Anil Dhirubhai Ambani Group, was merged with which company of the group in 2010? – Reliance Power

57) Who has designed the symbol for Indian currency Rupee which was approved by the union cabinet on 15th July 2010? – D Udaya Kumar (a PG degree holder from IIT Mumbai now teaching at IIT Guwahati)

58)  Which are the major currencies of the World to have their respective currency symbols? – US Dollar ($), British Pound Sterling (£), EU’s Euro (€) and Japanese Yen (¥)

59) Leading public sector bank Bank of Baroda (BOB) completed how many years of its incorporation in the year 2010? – 102 years (was established on 20th July 1908 and nationalized on 19th July , 1969)

60) Who established Bank of Baroda in 1908? – Sir His Royal Highness King Sayaji Rao Gaikwad – III

61) 7 major labour organizations of India organized a nationwide strike to protest against rising prices, anti-labour policies of the Govt. and other such issues on which date? – 7th September 2010

62) India became 19th country to sign the Hallmark Treaty. Hallmark Treaty is related with which issue? – Manufacture and control of business of precious metals

63) What will the benefit of India signing the Hallmark Treaty? – India’s hallmarked jewelry exports to associate Hallmark Treaty countries would not be required to be re-checked for purity at these countries

64) Hallmark Treaty is also known by which popular name? – Vienna Treaty 

65) Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) cancelled the aviation license of which airlines in the year 2010? – Paramount Airlines 

66) What is the essential criterion for renewal of aviation license as made mandatory by the DGCA? – Airlines should have minimum strength of 5 serviceable aircrafts

67) Which Indian bank started the Green Banking Channel on 1st July 2010 at its selected branches? – SBI

68) What is the meaning of Green banking Channel? – it is a concept of paperless banking to augment population conservation

69) Which leading tobacco and FMCG company celebrated 100 years of its inception in 2010? – ITC (Indian Tobacco Company)

70) National Tax Day falls on which day? – 24 July

Mathematical Techniques and Short Cuts

Basic Techniques for carrying out Divisibility Test of Numbers


How to check if a number can be divided by 2?

Sol: A number is divisible by 2 if its last digit is divisible by 2. Simply said, this means if last digit of a number is 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8, the number will be fully divided by 2

For Example : 8, 36, 296, 123899994 all are divisible by 2

How to check if a number can be divided by 3?

Sol : A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3

For Example : In case of 59892, the sum of its digit will be 5 + 9 + 8 + 9 + 2 = 33 and since 33 is divisible by 3 therefore this number will be divided fully by 3